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Forex
AFM
answered on 21-Apr-24 11:04
I didn't understood Why the rates are different??
latest answer
1.02 cents cent is 1/00th of a dollar so 1.02 cents in dollar terms = 1.02/100 = 0.0102
nazriya nasar
CA Final
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Free class till May 24 exam
AFM
answered on 20-Apr-24 17:15
Dear, please provide free classes for fr,AFM & IDT till May 24 exams in this app.please provide it is great help for may 24 students
latest answer
Regret we have no such plan - pls watch our free revision videos
Raja Saiteja
CA Final
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Portfolio Management
AFM
answered on 19-Apr-24 19:23
Sir, In Illu:57 for computing beta why are we specifically using sharpe model and not other formulas. Kindly clarify it sir .
latest answer
Ok sir. Thank you
Guru aravindh s
CA Final
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Forex
AFM
answered on 19-Apr-24 17:10
Any one can share Answer of 2nd part??
latest answer
Boot strap rates to arrive at rates for months 4-6 (1+12%/4) x (1+x%/4) = (1+11.5%/2) Solve this to get the value of x which will be the rate for months 4 to 6 - same way for both INR rates and USD rates
nazriya nasar
CA Final
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66
Portfolio management
AFM
answered on 19-Apr-24 12:07
Answer to 2nd part is not clear.. What is the variance value in that formula?? Also whats that 6??
latest answer
SD of risk free securities is 0
nazriya nasar
CA Final
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58
Doubt on the payment of interest difference
AFM
answered on 19-Apr-24 07:40
Sir, already lender will be in loss, 1.why he will pay back the interest difference to him? 2.if above question is wrong,then whether lender will receive back the ( P.V of interest difference which is paid on feb-1) on Apr-30 i.e 25000/- ?
latest answer
It is net cash settlement. Lender is in loss if he lends. Instead of lending and incurring a loss he pays the loss ie interest differential to borrower. Interest is usually paid at end of loan. Since he is paying interest at beginning of loan, he will pay PV of interest differential
Hanumanthu Rajesh
CA Final
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59
Depreciation
AFM
answered on 19-Apr-24 05:25
why havnt we considered the tax rate while adding back depreciation amount, ideally we should have considered the depn amt* tax rate (D*T) right?
latest answer
Page 3.2 formula 1 in the beginning https://resource.cdn.icai.org/74830bos60509-cp3.pdf When you compute PAT you have already subtracted depreciation to compute tax so you add back full Dep if you are computing EBIT (1-T) then you should add back Dep x T separately
Priyanka Udeshi
CA Final
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Repo rate doubt
AFM
answered on 18-Apr-24 20:57
Is answer wrong on Interest calculation part as they Calculate interest accured on current market price ?
latest answer
Ha yes calculation error
Ravi Teja
CA Final
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78
Book value after merger
AFM
answered on 18-Apr-24 06:28
Sir we are issuing 1.48L shares for target co @ Fv of ₹100 each then how can we add directly add Share Capital as 200+100=300 and R&S as 900+600=1500. We have already issued 1.48L shares means SC should 3.48*100=348 instead of 300 please clarify sir
latest answer
Ok 👍 sir got it
kabilan sam
CA Final
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Doubt on Exchange Margin
AFM
answered on 17-Apr-24 19:09
Sir Why we are reducing Exchange margin percentage from the new contract rate but the same we didn't reduced from the initial contract or original contract rate ? Could you please explain it sir?
latest answer
Ok sir. Tq
Hanumanthu Rajesh
CA Final
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2
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